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Module 1

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 
Which of the following is a component of the definition of the EMS system?
a.
 A team of emergency department and prehospital care providers
b.
 Prehospital professionally trained personnel that render basic support at a scene
c.
 Care rendered only at the remote scene
d.
 Each team member performs identical role
 

 2. 
You are on scene with a 50-year-old male who has lividity and rigor. The last time he was seen alive was 48 hours before your arrival. You contact the emergency department at the hospital for medical direction. This is which type of medical direction?
a.
 Incomplete
b.
 Complete
c.
 Indirect
d.
 Direct
 

 3. 
You are an EMT and are on scene with an EMT-I. Which of the following best describes the skills that the EMT-I may accomplish?
a.
 May establish IV line
b.
 May interpret EKG’s
c.
 May do a pleural decompression
d.
 May place a chest tube
 

 4. 
An EMT-B has initiated care. Upon arrival at the hospital, the EMT-B turns the patient over to a hospital volunteer worker. This may be considered:
a.
 Appropriate procedure
b.
 Negligence
c.
 Termination of care
d.
 Abandonment
 

 5. 
You arrive on scene, where you find a 28-year-old female who has been diagnosed with terminal cancer. Which of the following would be an appropriate stage in the stages of grief for this patient?
a.
 Anxiety
b.
 Denial
c.
 Silence
d.
 Passive/aggressive
 

 6. 
A patient has been diagnosed with terminal lung cancer. When you arrive on scene, he is experiencing increased shortness of breath. He begins to tell you that he feels he has not done enough with his life and has not expressed his feelings to his family. The emotional reaction this patient is experiencing is which of the following?
a.
 Anxiety
b.
 Pain
c.
 Guilt
d.
 Depression
 

 7. 
You are called to the scene, where a male is suffering from advanced multiple sclerosis. He is bedridden and has developed an infection. Which of the following is your most appropriate action after first ensuring scene safety?
a.
 Talk directly to the family first to establish control.
b.
 Use lights and sirens during transport.
c.
 Introduce yourself to the patient.
d.
 Tell the man that everything will be all right.
 

 8. 
You begin to dread work every day. You are working long hours, and you have had a number of calls that you have found depressing. Which of the following would be a helpful life-style change to avoid burnout?
a.
 Increase caffeine consumption.
b.
 Increase exercise.
c.
 Increase work hours.
d.
 Increase sugar intake.
 

 9. 
You have arrived on scene, where you find a homeless man who is apneic. You begin to assist ventilations in this patient, using a pocket mask. Which of the following is most important for protecting yourself from body substances in this particular case?
a.
 Gown
b.
 Hand washing
c.
 Mask
d.
 Pocket mask with one-way valve
 

 10. 
A patient experiences an allergic reaction. As an EMT you would like to provide oxygen. In an attempt to obtain consent, which of the following is required?
a.
 An explanation of the benefits and risks of oxygen
b.
 Use of appropriate medical terms
c.
 Providing a definitive diagnosis
d.
 Providing oxygen immediately; this is life threatening
 

 11. 
A person is involved in a motor vehicle accident. He arrives at the hospital and states that he would like oxygen but not a blood transfusion. This is what type of consent?
a.
 Complete refusal
b.
 Partial refusal
c.
 Competency
d.
 Surrogate
 

 12. 
A patient is involved in a snow skiing accident. She is unconscious and bleeding severely from a head injury. You may treat this patient based on which of the following?
a.
 Actual consent
b.
 Competency
c.
 Implied consent
d.
 Durable power of attorney
 

 13. 
A 13-year-old is riding her bike when she is hit by a car. She has obvious bilateral fractures of the femurs. She states that she does not want to be treated. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the EMT with regard to this patient?
a.
 If she is competent, do not render care.
b.
 Provide treatment, because she is not legally an adult.
c.
 Contact the police for their assistance.
d.
 Continue to discuss the benefits of treatment.
 

 14. 
Which of the following is a true statement regarding patient refusal?
a.
 The EMT must explain the state laws regarding treatment.
b.
 The EMT should document any form of patient refusal.
c.
 The EMT should refuse to treat a patient who requests partial treatment.
d.
 The EMT should refuse to treat someone who doesn’t understand the treatment.
 

 15. 
You are off duty and you pass an accident on the expressway. Which of the following is a true statement regarding your duty to act in this situation?
a.
 You have no duty to act, because you are not on duty.
b.
 You have taken an oath as an EMT, and you are to respond at all times.
c.
 You must contact medical control before responding to this scene.
d.
 You may respond only if it is in your jurisdiction.
 

 16. 
Which of the following is an appropriate disclosure of patient information and does not violate patient confidentiality?
a.
 Providing information to the media
b.
 Providing information to bystanders
c.
 Providing information to care providers
d.
 Providing information to police officers
 

 17. 
You are on the scene, where a 21-year-old male has shot himself in the head. He has a pulse and has agonal respirations. Brain matter is apparent, and there are no recognizable features of the cranium or face. Which of the following is a rationale for resuscitation?
a.
 Organ donation may be an option for this patient.
b.
 This patient may be a candidate for research.
c.
 It is unethical to resuscitate this patient.
d.
 It is important to honor the family’s wishes.
 

 18. 
Which of the following is an appropriate action in attempts to preserve a crime scene?
a.
 Cut through bullet holes in clothing.
b.
 Do not disturb anything that is unnecessary for patient care.
c.
 Enter upon arrival.
d.
 Contact police after the incident is complete.
 

 19. 
You are treating a patient who is in shock. You place the patient on his back and elevate the feet. Which of the following terms best describes this position?
a.
 Supine
b.
 Trendelenburg position
c.
 Prone
d.
 Semi-Fowler position
 

 20. 
You are on scene with a 52-year-old male who has cut his arm with a chain saw between the elbow and the wrist. Which of the following correctly describes the position of this patent’s wound?
a.
 Distal to the wrist
b.
 Distal to the fingers
c.
 Proximal to the elbow
d.
 Proximal to the wrist
 

 21. 
A patient has pain in both arms after tripping and falling down a set of bleachers at a football game. Which of the following best describes his injuries?
a.
 The injuries are unilateral.
b.
 The injuries are bilateral.
c.
 The injuries are midline.
d.
 The injuries are posterior.
 

 22. 
When a patient takes a deep inspiration while breathing, which of the following occurs?
a.
 The diaphragm contracts.
b.
 The diaphragm relaxes.
c.
 The diaphragm moves upward.
d.
 The thorax contracts.
 

 23. 
Which of the following is a function of the endocrine system?
a.
 Carrying nutrients
b.
 Processing food and waste products
c.
 Producing hormones
d.
 Providing insulation
 

 24. 
In which area of the spine will you find 7 vertebrae?
a.
 Cervical
b.
 Thoracic
c.
 Lumbar
d.
 Sacral
 

 25. 
What is the role of the integumentary system?
a.
 Regulates body temperature
b.
 Prevents dehydration
c.
 Protects against the environment and harmful substances
d.
 All of the above
 

 26. 
Which organs are contained in the digestive system?
a.
 Bones and muscles
b.
 Stomach and esophagus
c.
 Brain and spinal cord
d.
 Trachea and alveoli
 

 27. 
Which of the following is a component of the vital signs?
a.
 Assessment of the skin
b.
 Assessment of the past medical history
c.
 Assessment of the patient’s body
d.
 Assessment of life-threatening injuries
 

 28. 
You arrive on scene and find a woman who has given birth to a baby who is pink and crying. Which of the following is a normal respiratory rate for the newborn?
a.
 12 to 20 breaths per minute
b.
 15 to 30 breaths per minute
c.
 20 to 30 breaths per minute
d.
 30 to 50 breaths per minute
 

 29. 
You arrive on scene and begin assessing a patient’s breathing. Which of the following is one of the aspects of breathing that should be evaluated?
a.
 Rhythm
b.
 Color
c.
 Quality
d.
 Temperature
 

 30. 
You arrive on scene and find a patient who is experiencing shortness of breath. The patient is using the accessory muscles, and you can see retractions between the ribs. Which of the following best describes this type of breathing?
a.
 Labored
b.
 Shallow
c.
 Noisy
d.
 Grunting
 

 31. 
You arrive on scene, where you find a 60-year-old male who is short of breath. You assess his pulse and note that it is 180 beats per minute. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this tachycardia?
a.
 Sleep
b.
 Exercise
c.
 Hypothermia
d.
 Cardiac problem
 

 32. 
You arrive on scene to find a 77-year-old patient who was hit by a car while crossing the street. Her radial pulse is difficult to palpate. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this?
a.
 Compromised vascular circulation.
b.
 Normal finding in a 77 year old.
c.
 Increased blood volume.
d.
 Increased respiratory rate.
 

 33. 
Which of the following is a skin finding in a healthy patient?
a.
 Capillary refill of less than 2 seconds
b.
 Moist to the touch
c.
 Increased temperature
d.
 Cool to the touch
 

 34. 
An 82-year-old male has pale, blotchy skin with bluish areas. Which of the following conditions is associated with this skin color?
a.
 Burns
b.
 Shock
c.
 Hypertension
d.
 Increased body temperature
 

 35. 
A patient’s skin is hot to the touch. Which of the following would be a condition associated with hot skin?
a.
 Hypoperfusion
b.
 Hypothermia
c.
 Fever
d.
 Normal skin finding
 

 36. 
Which of the following is a true statement regarding capillary refill?
a.
 Normal capillary refill is less than 5 seconds.
b.
 Delayed capillary refill in adults may indicate vascular disease.
c.
 It is not an accurate assessment of perfusion in infants and children.
d.
 Capillary refill may be assessed only in the fingers.
 

 37. 
Which of the following is a correct statement about pupillary findings in a patient?
a.
 The pupils get larger when in sunlight.
b.
 Only the pupil into which a light is shown constricts.
c.
 The pupils constrict in a dark environment.
d.
 Unequal pupils may indicate a stroke or trauma.
 

 38. 
Which of the following is appropriate when measuring a blood pressure?
a.
 Placing the cuff 5 inches above the crease in the arm
b.
 Placing the diaphragm of the stethoscope under the cuff
c.
 Making sure the valve is closed on the cuff
d.
 Squeezing the bulb until it becomes difficult
 

 39. 
A patient is having chest pain, and you get a auscultated blood pressure of 220/100. The number 220 represents which of the following?
a.
 Pulse rate
b.
 Blood pressure when the heart is beating
c.
 Blood pressure when the heart is relaxed
d.
 Diastolic pressure
 

 40. 
You arrive on scene and find a patient with altered mental status. The patient has a history of hypertension, and the person’s blood pressure is 220/140. The 140 is a measure of which of the following?
a.
 Systolic blood pressure
b.
 Pressure in the vessels during contraction of the heart
c.
 Pressure during palpation
d.
 Diastolic pressure
 

 41. 
Which of the following is the correct description of the difference between an auscultated and a palpated blood pressure?
a.
 A palpated blood pressure uses both the cuff and the stethoscope.
b.
 An auscultated blood pressure provides both the systolic and diastolic pressures.
c.
 A palpated blood pressure requires the EMT to feel the pulse as the cuff is inflated.
d.
 A palpated blood pressure is measured when the pulse disappears while the cuff is inflated.
 

 42. 
Which of the following is a component of the SAMPLE history?
a.
 E is for evaluate.
b.
 P is for past medical history.
c.
 S is for skin condition.
d.
 P is for pain assessment.
 

 43. 
Which of the following is a sign?
a.
 Pain
b.
 Pulse of 52
c.
 Nausea
d.
 Discomfort
 

 44. 
Which of the following is an important reason to report initial vital signs?
a.
 It establishes a baseline for evaluating the patient for any changes.
b.
 The hospital requires this evaluation.
c.
 It is part of the SAMPLE history.
d.
 It helps to confirm or rule out symptoms.
 

 45. 
Your patient is a diabetic in ketoacidosis following a bout of the flu. You observe your patient to be breathing regularly, rapidly and very deeply. What is this type of breathing called?
a.
 Normal respirations
b.
 Ataxic or Biot's respirations
c.
 Cheyne-Stokes respirations
d.
 Kussmaul's respirations
 

 46. 
Which of the following is the correct definition of body mechanics?
a.
 Refers to use of the body in a manner to avoid injury
b.
 Pertains to mechanical motion of certain joints
c.
 Refers to back strain
d.
 Refers to severe injury sustained on the job
 

 47. 
You are demonstrating to a new EMT how to lift a heavy object. Which of the following is an appropriate detail in the step-by-step process of lifting?
a.
 Keep the back locked.
b.
 Keep the feet together.
c.
 Bend at the waist.
d.
 Relax the abdominal muscles.
 

 48. 
You arrive on scene, where a 41-year-old female is having respiratory distress. The patient has a history of asthma. Which of the following is an appropriate position for this patient during transport?
a.
 Supine
b.
 Prone
c.
 Recovery
d.
 Fowler’s position
 

 49. 
You are about to transport a patient from the scene of an accident to the hospital. Which of the following is an appropriate precaution?
a.
 No restraints are necessary in an ambulance.
b.
 Wheeled stretchers should have one restraint.
c.
 The chest restraint should be secure but not too tight.
d.
 The waist restraint is optional.
 

 50. 
You arrive on scene, where a building is fully involved in flames. Your partner is taking care of another patient. A middle-aged male patient is walking away from the fire but is moving very slowly. Which of the following would be the next most appropriate action?
a.
 One-person assist
b.
 Two-person cradle carry
c.
 One-person cradle carry
d.
 Two-person blanket drag
 



 
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